First the answers to the last set of quantitative questions:
Section I:
1. (B), 2. (E), 3. (E), 4. (E)
Section II:
1. (E), 2. (E), 3. (E), 4. (B), 5. (D), 6. (B)
---------------------
Now, assuming you followed the time constraints, add up your correct responses which will be some total out of 25 for the verbal, and out of 20 for the quantitative. These yield a "raw" score which - when scaled to the no. of questions (relative to the original test) yields a comparative GRE score out of 800. These are given below:
Verbal:
Raw score/ 25..............................GRE analog
______________________________________
25.....................................................800
24....................................................750
23....................................................720
22....................................................690
21....................................................660
20....................................................630
19....................................................610
18....................................................580
17....................................................550
16....................................................500
15....................................................460
14....................................................400
---------------------------------------------------
Quantitative:
Raw score/ 20................................GRE analog
______________________________________
20....................................................800
19....................................................740
18....................................................710
17................................................... 680
16....................................................650
15....................................................620
14....................................................590
13....................................................550
12....................................................510
11....................................................470
10 ..................................................430
-----------------------------------------------------------
Now, add up the verbal plus quantitative GRE analog scores. If you got 1250 or over, you'd likely qualify for Mensa (remember this is a sample facsimile test of the 1985 version, not the actual one with same no. of questions, time etc.). To get an idea of comparative (estimated, i.e. plus or minus 3 pts)) IQ to sample GRE scores, see : http://www.iqcomparisonsite.com/greiq.aspx
Showing posts with label IQ equivalent standardized tests. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IQ equivalent standardized tests. Show all posts
Wednesday, August 28, 2013
Tuesday, August 27, 2013
Looking at More Complex GRE-style Quantitative Aptitude Questions
First, the answers from last time:
Verbal (I):
1. (B), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (E), 5, (B)
Verbal (II):
1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (B), 4. (E)
Verbal -Analytic (III):
1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (A), 4. (E), 5. (E), 6. (C)
We look now at GRE- style quantitative questions. In each case for the given question set, study the graph and information concerning it, then answer the questions that follow:
Quantitative (I): 7 Minutes:
The graph shown displays the chemical potential vs relative temperature for pure water, a saline solution and ice. For an "ideal solution" (a solution in which all molecules interact in the same way) the chemical potential of water in the solution is given by :
where R is the gas law constant (8.314 J/mol K), T is the temperature, and xsolution water is the mole fraction of water in the solution. (On the graph, T0 is the freezing point of the pure water. ) As salt is added to the water, the concentration of water in the solution goes down. That makes xsolution water less than one, and the natural log of a number less than one is negative. That makes the concentration correction negative, so the chemical potential of water will drop as more salt is added.
1. The decrease in chemical potential occurs because:
A. The quantity x (solution water) is less than one.
B. There is a lower concentration of water in the solution than in the pure liquid.
C. There is a higher concentration of water in the solution than in the pure liquid.
D. There is no change in concentration between ice and pure liquid.
E. The freezing point remains unchanged.
2. At the freezing point, it is clear that:
A. Ice and pure water co-exist
B. The tendency of the ice to melt is exactly counter balanced by the tendency of the water to freeze
C. The chemical potentials must be equal so that: µice = µpure water
D. Pure water has a higher chemical potential than water in salt solution
E. All of the above.
3. It is clear that when salt is mixed with the pure water solution:
A. The dissolved salt will lower the chemical potential of the (originally) pure water.
B. The chemical potential of the ice is barely affected at all.
C. The water must now be more unstable than ice - so the ice will melt more slowly.
D. Answers A, B and C
E. Answers A and B.
4. Which, if any, of the following can be deduced from the graph?
A. The chemical potential for all 3 substances rises as the temperature decreases.
B. The solution (water in) curve is shifted below the curve for pure water because the RT in the xsolution water term is less than zero.
C. The lower chemical potential of solution water shifts the point of intersection (with that for ice) to the left. This means the freezing point for water in the solution is lower than the freezing point for the pure water.
D. Answers A and B
E. Answers A, B and C.
Quantitative II: (8 Minutes)
The graph above shows the radiocarbon C-14 excess over C-12 over a 2,000 year period. In general, C14 is produced in the upper atmosphere via the impact –interaction with high energy cosmic rays, say from galactic sources. Solar activity in turn modulates the intensity of these cosmic rays via the action of the heliosphere's magnetic field which deflects a fraction of the intense cosmic ray flux and other harmful interstellar radiation.
When the Sun is more active, the heliosphere will be stronger, shielding the Earth from more intense cosmic rays the effect of which is to reduce the C14 produced in the Earth’s upper atmosphere. Conversely, when the Sun is less active then the shield is weaker and more intense cosmic rays penetrate to our upper atmosphere yielding more C14 produced.
To conform with observed solar activity the plot (from P.E. Damon :'The Solar Output and Its Variation', The University of Colorado Press, Boulder, 1977) is such that increasing radiocarbon (C14) is downward and indicated with (+). The deviations in parts per thousand are shown relative to an arbitrary 19th century reference level.
Questions:
1. The increasing C14/C12 ratio, i.e. from left to right on the graph probably arises from:
(A) Injection of anthropogenic CO2 into the Earth's atmosphere.
(B) The result of the known, slow decrease in the strength of the Earth’s magnetic moment.
(C) Increased cosmic ray fluxes on Earth
(D) Increased radiocarbon production on Earth resulting from (C)
(E) All the above
2. The sharp upward spike at the modern end of the curve (e.g. from about 1850 on) , representing a marked drop in relative radiocarbon, is probably due to:
(A) Anthropogenic causes—the onset of increased population and the Industrial Age
(B) The burning of low radiocarbon fossil fuels, such as coal and oil
(C) The systematic burning off of the world’s forests for agriculture.
(D) Processes (B) and (C) only
(E) All the processes: A, B and C
3. The percentage C14 excess over C 12 by the mid-20th century is approximately:
(A) +25, (B) -25, (C) +30 (D) +5 (E) +10
The graph below shows the changes in the heliosphere's magnetic field over different solar cycles, starting from 1900 to about the beginning of the 1st quarter of 2000. The vertical axis gives the magnitude of the magnetic field (B) in nano-Tesla. Note that the red portion of the graph denotes magnitudes observed from Earth, while the earlier (blue, light green) denoted inferred magnitudes.
4. Based on where Damon's (earlier) C-14 excess over C12 graph terminates, estimate the magnitude of the inferred or observed heliospheric magnetic field:
(A) 3 nT (B) 7 nT, (C) 9 nT (D) 5 nT (E) 8 nT
5. According to existing solar data, sunspot cycle 16 was a "weak cycle" which led to a much more energetic and active one (cycle 17). Estimate the ratio of the maximum magnitudes of the heliospheric magnetic fields, in cycle 17 relative to 16:
(A) 0.5 (B) 2.0 (C) 8/7 (D) 8.5/6.8 (E) 9/ 7
6. According to the World Meteorological Office:
“The year 2010 is almost certain to rank in the top three warmest years since the beginning of instrumental records in 1850.”
Assuming the validity of the arbitrary norm (zero line or abscissa) for 1890 in the Damon graph, then it is clear that the magnitude of the Middle Ages warming period (relative C14 strength of -18), for example, is less than about ½ the relative effect attributed mainly to anthropogenic sources in the modern era (-40). Based on this, and examining the two graphs, is it logical to conclude that the magnitude of the heliosphere magnetic field directly affects climate change on Earth?
(A) No, not enough data (B) Yes, to a small degree - because it modulates cosmic ray flux
(C) Yes, since the magnitude of the relative C14 over C12 excess, for Middle Ages warming, is less than about ½ the relative effect attributed mainly to anthropogenic sources in the modern era.
(D) No, because there weren't actual instruments to measure the heliosphere magnetic field in the Middle Ages.
(E) Yes, because the maximum peak for cycle 23 falls close enough to the beginning of 2010.
--------
Answers tomorrow. Also, where do you stand on a truncated GRE aptitude test scale? Find out tomorrow, assuming you've taken all these sample segments in the time.
Verbal (I):
1. (B), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (E), 5, (B)
Verbal (II):
1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (B), 4. (E)
Verbal -Analytic (III):
1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (A), 4. (E), 5. (E), 6. (C)
We look now at GRE- style quantitative questions. In each case for the given question set, study the graph and information concerning it, then answer the questions that follow:
Quantitative (I): 7 Minutes:
The graph shown displays the chemical potential vs relative temperature for pure water, a saline solution and ice. For an "ideal solution" (a solution in which all molecules interact in the same way) the chemical potential of water in the solution is given by :
µsolution water = µpure water + RT ln xsolution water
where R is the gas law constant (8.314 J/mol K), T is the temperature, and xsolution water is the mole fraction of water in the solution. (On the graph, T0 is the freezing point of the pure water. ) As salt is added to the water, the concentration of water in the solution goes down. That makes xsolution water less than one, and the natural log of a number less than one is negative. That makes the concentration correction negative, so the chemical potential of water will drop as more salt is added.
1. The decrease in chemical potential occurs because:
A. The quantity x (solution water) is less than one.
B. There is a lower concentration of water in the solution than in the pure liquid.
C. There is a higher concentration of water in the solution than in the pure liquid.
D. There is no change in concentration between ice and pure liquid.
E. The freezing point remains unchanged.
2. At the freezing point, it is clear that:
A. Ice and pure water co-exist
B. The tendency of the ice to melt is exactly counter balanced by the tendency of the water to freeze
C. The chemical potentials must be equal so that: µice = µpure water
D. Pure water has a higher chemical potential than water in salt solution
E. All of the above.
3. It is clear that when salt is mixed with the pure water solution:
A. The dissolved salt will lower the chemical potential of the (originally) pure water.
B. The chemical potential of the ice is barely affected at all.
C. The water must now be more unstable than ice - so the ice will melt more slowly.
D. Answers A, B and C
E. Answers A and B.
4. Which, if any, of the following can be deduced from the graph?
A. The chemical potential for all 3 substances rises as the temperature decreases.
B. The solution (water in) curve is shifted below the curve for pure water because the RT in the xsolution water term is less than zero.
C. The lower chemical potential of solution water shifts the point of intersection (with that for ice) to the left. This means the freezing point for water in the solution is lower than the freezing point for the pure water.
D. Answers A and B
E. Answers A, B and C.
Quantitative II: (8 Minutes)
The graph above shows the radiocarbon C-14 excess over C-12 over a 2,000 year period. In general, C14 is produced in the upper atmosphere via the impact –interaction with high energy cosmic rays, say from galactic sources. Solar activity in turn modulates the intensity of these cosmic rays via the action of the heliosphere's magnetic field which deflects a fraction of the intense cosmic ray flux and other harmful interstellar radiation.
When the Sun is more active, the heliosphere will be stronger, shielding the Earth from more intense cosmic rays the effect of which is to reduce the C14 produced in the Earth’s upper atmosphere. Conversely, when the Sun is less active then the shield is weaker and more intense cosmic rays penetrate to our upper atmosphere yielding more C14 produced.
To conform with observed solar activity the plot (from P.E. Damon :'The Solar Output and Its Variation', The University of Colorado Press, Boulder, 1977) is such that increasing radiocarbon (C14) is downward and indicated with (+). The deviations in parts per thousand are shown relative to an arbitrary 19th century reference level.
Questions:
1. The increasing C14/C12 ratio, i.e. from left to right on the graph probably arises from:
(A) Injection of anthropogenic CO2 into the Earth's atmosphere.
(B) The result of the known, slow decrease in the strength of the Earth’s magnetic moment.
(C) Increased cosmic ray fluxes on Earth
(D) Increased radiocarbon production on Earth resulting from (C)
(E) All the above
2. The sharp upward spike at the modern end of the curve (e.g. from about 1850 on) , representing a marked drop in relative radiocarbon, is probably due to:
(A) Anthropogenic causes—the onset of increased population and the Industrial Age
(B) The burning of low radiocarbon fossil fuels, such as coal and oil
(C) The systematic burning off of the world’s forests for agriculture.
(D) Processes (B) and (C) only
(E) All the processes: A, B and C
3. The percentage C14 excess over C 12 by the mid-20th century is approximately:
(A) +25, (B) -25, (C) +30 (D) +5 (E) +10
The graph below shows the changes in the heliosphere's magnetic field over different solar cycles, starting from 1900 to about the beginning of the 1st quarter of 2000. The vertical axis gives the magnitude of the magnetic field (B) in nano-Tesla. Note that the red portion of the graph denotes magnitudes observed from Earth, while the earlier (blue, light green) denoted inferred magnitudes.
4. Based on where Damon's (earlier) C-14 excess over C12 graph terminates, estimate the magnitude of the inferred or observed heliospheric magnetic field:
(A) 3 nT (B) 7 nT, (C) 9 nT (D) 5 nT (E) 8 nT
5. According to existing solar data, sunspot cycle 16 was a "weak cycle" which led to a much more energetic and active one (cycle 17). Estimate the ratio of the maximum magnitudes of the heliospheric magnetic fields, in cycle 17 relative to 16:
(A) 0.5 (B) 2.0 (C) 8/7 (D) 8.5/6.8 (E) 9/ 7
6. According to the World Meteorological Office:
“The year 2010 is almost certain to rank in the top three warmest years since the beginning of instrumental records in 1850.”
Assuming the validity of the arbitrary norm (zero line or abscissa) for 1890 in the Damon graph, then it is clear that the magnitude of the Middle Ages warming period (relative C14 strength of -18), for example, is less than about ½ the relative effect attributed mainly to anthropogenic sources in the modern era (-40). Based on this, and examining the two graphs, is it logical to conclude that the magnitude of the heliosphere magnetic field directly affects climate change on Earth?
(A) No, not enough data (B) Yes, to a small degree - because it modulates cosmic ray flux
(C) Yes, since the magnitude of the relative C14 over C12 excess, for Middle Ages warming, is less than about ½ the relative effect attributed mainly to anthropogenic sources in the modern era.
(D) No, because there weren't actual instruments to measure the heliosphere magnetic field in the Middle Ages.
(E) Yes, because the maximum peak for cycle 23 falls close enough to the beginning of 2010.
--------
Answers tomorrow. Also, where do you stand on a truncated GRE aptitude test scale? Find out tomorrow, assuming you've taken all these sample segments in the time.
Monday, August 26, 2013
Looking At More Complex GRE Verbal Aptitude Questions
First, the answers from the previous sample GRE aptitude test questions:
Verbal (Pt. I):
1.(A), 2. (E), 3. (D), 4. (B), 5. (B)
2. Quantitative (Pt. I)
1. (A), 2. (E), 3. (C), 4. (D), 5. (C)
Verbal (Pt. II):
1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (C), 4. (C), 5. (E)
Quantitative (Pt. II):
1. (C), 2. (B), 3. (B), 4. (D), 5. (A)
----
Now, lest any readers believe the GRE questions were typically as easy as those in the last blog, let's look at a few examples of more complex ones. We will start out with a series requiring filling in the correct word pair in given blanks for a sentence, then go to one example each of a passage which must be read, then interpreted-analyzed and responses given. Here goes:
Verbal (I): (5 minutes)
Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating a word has been omitted. Choose the pair of words which best fits:
1. It is true that seeds of some plants have _____ after two hundred years of dormancy, but reports that viable seeds have been found in ancient tombs such as the pyramids are entirely_______:
(A) revived: empirical
(B) germinated: unfounded
(C) endured: irrelevant
(D) erupted:reasonable
(E) proliferated: substantiated
2. The most technologically advanced societies have been responsible for the greatest ______ indeed, savagery seems to be in direct proportion to_______:
(A) wars: viciousness
(B) catastrophes: ill will
(C) atrocities: development
(D)inventions: know-how
(E) triumphs:civilization
3. The combination of ______ and ______ in Edmund's speech can be startling, especially when he slyly slips in some juicy vulgarity amid the mellifluous circumlocutions of a gentleman of the old school.
(A) tact: innocence
(B) raciness: ribaldry
(C) piousness: modesty
(D) elegance: earthiness
(E)propriety: bashfulness
4. Every new theory not only must _____ the valid predictions of the old theory, but must also explain why those predictions ______ within the range of that old theory.
(A)organize: failed
(B)generate: faltered
(C) promote: functioned
(D)refute: evolved
(E) accommodate: succeeded
5. Human reaction to the realm of thought is often as strong as that to sensible presences; our higher moral life is based on the fact that ______ sensations actually present may have a weaker influence on our action than do the ideas of _____ facts.
(A) disturbing: ordinary
(B) material: remote
(C) emotional : impersonal
(D) definitive: controversial
(E) familiar: symbolic
Verbal (II): (5 minutes)
Read the passage provided then choose the correct letter referencing some part of the passage - with conclusions stated or implied:
The Food and Drug Administration has recently proposed severe restrictions on the use of antibiotics to promote the health and growth of meat animals. Medications added to feeds kill many microorganisms but also encourage the appearance of bacterial strains that are resistant to anti-infective drugs. Already, for example, penicillin and tetracyclines are not as effective therapeutically as they once were. The drug resistance is chiefly conferred by tiny circlets of genes called plasmids, that can exchanged between different strains and even different species of bacteria. Plasmids are also one of the two kinds of vehicles (the other being viruses) that molecular biologists depend on when performing gene transplant experiments. Even present guidelines forbid the laboratory use of plasmids bearing genes for resistance to antibiotics. Yet, while congressional debate rages over whether or not to toughen these restrictions on scientists in their laboratories, little congressional attention has been focused on an ill-advised agricultural practice that produces known deleterious effects.
1. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with:
(A) discovering methods of eliminating harmful microorganisms without subsequently generating drug resistant bacteria.
(B) explaining reasons for congressional inaction on the regulation of gene transplant experiments
(C) describing a problematic agricultural practice and its serious genetic consequences
(D) verifying the therapeutic ineffectiveness of anti-infective drugs.
(E) evaluating recently proposed restrictions intended to promote the growth of meat animals.
2. According to the passage, the exchange of plasmids between different bacteria can result in which of the following?
(A) Microorganisms resistant to drugs
(B) Therapeutically useful circlets of genes
(C) Anti-infective drugs like penicillin
(D) Viruses for use by molecular biologists
(E) Vehicles for performing gene transplant experiments
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that those in favor of stiffening the restrictions on gene transplant research should logically also:
(A) encourage experiments with any plasmids except those bearing genes for antibiotic research
(B) question the addition of anti-infective drugs to livestock feed
(C) resist the use of penicillin and tetracyclines to kill microorganisms
(D) agree to the development of meatier livestock through the use of antibiotics
(E) favor congressional debate and discussion of all science and health issues
4. The author's attitude toward the development of bacterial strains that render antibiotic drugs ineffective can best be described as:
(A) indifferent, (B) perplexed, (C) pretentious, (D) insincere, (E) apprehensive
Verbal-Analytical (III): (6 minutes:)
Read the passage then answer the questions on it which follow:
The work week in a small business is a five-day work week running from Monday through Friday. In each workweek, activities L, M, N, O and P must all be done, but the work is subject to the following restrictions:
L must be done earlier in the week than O but not earlier than P
M must be done earlier in the week than N and not earlier than O.
No more than one of the activities can be done on any one day
1. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule of activities with the activities listed from left to right in the order from Monday through Friday:
(A) L, M, N, O, P,
(B)M,N, O, M, N
(C) O, N. L, P, M
(D) P, O, L, M. L
(E) P, O, L, M , N
2. Which of the following pairs of activities could be done on Monday and Tuesday, respectively, of some week:
(A) L and O
(B) M and L
(C) M and P
(D) N and O
(E) O and M
3. If P is earlier than M on the schedule for some week, which of the following must also be true of that schedule?
(A) L is earlier than M
(B) N is earlier than M
(C) N is earlier than O
(D) O is earlier than L
(E) O is earlier than P
4. If P and N were done on Thursday and Friday, respectively, which of the following must be true?
(A) L is done on Tuesday
(B) L is done on Wednesday
(C) M is done on Monday
(D) O is done on Tuesday
(E) O is done on Wednesday
5. Which of the following could appear on the schedule for some week?
(A) L on Friday
(B) M on Thursday
(C) N on Monday
(D) O on Monday
(E) P on Tuesday
6. The one day of the week for which any one of the five activities could be scheduled while still allowing the other four activities to be scheduled is:
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Friday
Answers tomorrow!
(Note that if you plan to try this portion of the sample test under relatively consistent conditions with the actual one, you should take no more than 16 minutes.)
Verbal (Pt. I):
1.(A), 2. (E), 3. (D), 4. (B), 5. (B)
2. Quantitative (Pt. I)
1. (A), 2. (E), 3. (C), 4. (D), 5. (C)
Verbal (Pt. II):
1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (C), 4. (C), 5. (E)
Quantitative (Pt. II):
1. (C), 2. (B), 3. (B), 4. (D), 5. (A)
----
Now, lest any readers believe the GRE questions were typically as easy as those in the last blog, let's look at a few examples of more complex ones. We will start out with a series requiring filling in the correct word pair in given blanks for a sentence, then go to one example each of a passage which must be read, then interpreted-analyzed and responses given. Here goes:
Verbal (I): (5 minutes)
Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating a word has been omitted. Choose the pair of words which best fits:
1. It is true that seeds of some plants have _____ after two hundred years of dormancy, but reports that viable seeds have been found in ancient tombs such as the pyramids are entirely_______:
(A) revived: empirical
(B) germinated: unfounded
(C) endured: irrelevant
(D) erupted:reasonable
(E) proliferated: substantiated
2. The most technologically advanced societies have been responsible for the greatest ______ indeed, savagery seems to be in direct proportion to_______:
(A) wars: viciousness
(B) catastrophes: ill will
(C) atrocities: development
(D)inventions: know-how
(E) triumphs:civilization
3. The combination of ______ and ______ in Edmund's speech can be startling, especially when he slyly slips in some juicy vulgarity amid the mellifluous circumlocutions of a gentleman of the old school.
(A) tact: innocence
(B) raciness: ribaldry
(C) piousness: modesty
(D) elegance: earthiness
(E)propriety: bashfulness
4. Every new theory not only must _____ the valid predictions of the old theory, but must also explain why those predictions ______ within the range of that old theory.
(A)organize: failed
(B)generate: faltered
(C) promote: functioned
(D)refute: evolved
(E) accommodate: succeeded
5. Human reaction to the realm of thought is often as strong as that to sensible presences; our higher moral life is based on the fact that ______ sensations actually present may have a weaker influence on our action than do the ideas of _____ facts.
(A) disturbing: ordinary
(B) material: remote
(C) emotional : impersonal
(D) definitive: controversial
(E) familiar: symbolic
Verbal (II): (5 minutes)
Read the passage provided then choose the correct letter referencing some part of the passage - with conclusions stated or implied:
The Food and Drug Administration has recently proposed severe restrictions on the use of antibiotics to promote the health and growth of meat animals. Medications added to feeds kill many microorganisms but also encourage the appearance of bacterial strains that are resistant to anti-infective drugs. Already, for example, penicillin and tetracyclines are not as effective therapeutically as they once were. The drug resistance is chiefly conferred by tiny circlets of genes called plasmids, that can exchanged between different strains and even different species of bacteria. Plasmids are also one of the two kinds of vehicles (the other being viruses) that molecular biologists depend on when performing gene transplant experiments. Even present guidelines forbid the laboratory use of plasmids bearing genes for resistance to antibiotics. Yet, while congressional debate rages over whether or not to toughen these restrictions on scientists in their laboratories, little congressional attention has been focused on an ill-advised agricultural practice that produces known deleterious effects.
1. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with:
(A) discovering methods of eliminating harmful microorganisms without subsequently generating drug resistant bacteria.
(B) explaining reasons for congressional inaction on the regulation of gene transplant experiments
(C) describing a problematic agricultural practice and its serious genetic consequences
(D) verifying the therapeutic ineffectiveness of anti-infective drugs.
(E) evaluating recently proposed restrictions intended to promote the growth of meat animals.
2. According to the passage, the exchange of plasmids between different bacteria can result in which of the following?
(A) Microorganisms resistant to drugs
(B) Therapeutically useful circlets of genes
(C) Anti-infective drugs like penicillin
(D) Viruses for use by molecular biologists
(E) Vehicles for performing gene transplant experiments
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that those in favor of stiffening the restrictions on gene transplant research should logically also:
(A) encourage experiments with any plasmids except those bearing genes for antibiotic research
(B) question the addition of anti-infective drugs to livestock feed
(C) resist the use of penicillin and tetracyclines to kill microorganisms
(D) agree to the development of meatier livestock through the use of antibiotics
(E) favor congressional debate and discussion of all science and health issues
4. The author's attitude toward the development of bacterial strains that render antibiotic drugs ineffective can best be described as:
(A) indifferent, (B) perplexed, (C) pretentious, (D) insincere, (E) apprehensive
Verbal-Analytical (III): (6 minutes:)
Read the passage then answer the questions on it which follow:
The work week in a small business is a five-day work week running from Monday through Friday. In each workweek, activities L, M, N, O and P must all be done, but the work is subject to the following restrictions:
L must be done earlier in the week than O but not earlier than P
M must be done earlier in the week than N and not earlier than O.
No more than one of the activities can be done on any one day
1. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule of activities with the activities listed from left to right in the order from Monday through Friday:
(A) L, M, N, O, P,
(B)M,N, O, M, N
(C) O, N. L, P, M
(D) P, O, L, M. L
(E) P, O, L, M , N
2. Which of the following pairs of activities could be done on Monday and Tuesday, respectively, of some week:
(A) L and O
(B) M and L
(C) M and P
(D) N and O
(E) O and M
3. If P is earlier than M on the schedule for some week, which of the following must also be true of that schedule?
(A) L is earlier than M
(B) N is earlier than M
(C) N is earlier than O
(D) O is earlier than L
(E) O is earlier than P
4. If P and N were done on Thursday and Friday, respectively, which of the following must be true?
(A) L is done on Tuesday
(B) L is done on Wednesday
(C) M is done on Monday
(D) O is done on Tuesday
(E) O is done on Wednesday
5. Which of the following could appear on the schedule for some week?
(A) L on Friday
(B) M on Thursday
(C) N on Monday
(D) O on Monday
(E) P on Tuesday
6. The one day of the week for which any one of the five activities could be scheduled while still allowing the other four activities to be scheduled is:
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Friday
Answers tomorrow!
(Note that if you plan to try this portion of the sample test under relatively consistent conditions with the actual one, you should take no more than 16 minutes.)
Sunday, August 25, 2013
What Constitutes a Real Aptitude Test?
In a previous blog, see http://brane-space.blogspot.com/2013/08/why-so-many-past-aptitude-tests-are-no.htmlI noted why most current standardized exams, including the SAT, GRE and others, no longer qualify as bona fide aptitude tests and hence can no longer be used for entry into the high IQ societies, such as Mensa, Intertel. This elicits the question of what a real aptitude test would look like, what type of questions would be seen?
As an example, I can present some sample questions from the (1985) Graduate Record Exam I took (test booklets could be purchased with score release), which result (1330 verbal + quant.) qualified me not only for Mensa entry but Intertel as well - and also a $9800/yr post-graduate research assistantship at the University of Alaska-Fairbanks. The test was grueling to say the least, lasting a full 210 mins. (3 1/2 hours) with 30 questions each in 7 sections (30 mins. allowed per section) alternating verbal, quantitative and analytical questions. The questions also varied in complexity. In the case of the verbal portions they ranged from simple recognition of opposites and analogies, etc. to parsing complex paragraphs from diverse writings then interpreting them. In the case of the quantitative sets, they varied from simple algebraic, arithmetic, geometric or trig questions to analyzing graphs then addressing aspects of them via the questions. The point to bear in mind is that no matter how "simple" the questions may appear, they're not based on rote memory or content but on aptitude.
Since basically there is only one minute per question on average, then if anyone attempts this as a sample test, you have no more than 20 minutes to complete it. In the interest of space conservation I have focused only on the shorter version of questions - no lengthy ones. Thus finishing in the time may be somewhat misleading - since obviously more complex questions (which are excluded) would consume more time.
With those provisos, here goes:
Sample GRE Verbal (I): Time: 5 Minutes
Each question contains a word in capital letters then five lettered choices. Choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitals:
1. SATURNINE:
(A) genial (B) devout (C) distinguished (D) quick-witted (E) heavy-handed
2. ABEYANCE:
(A) fulfillment (B) activity (C) renascence (D) resistance (E) continuance
3. MUNIFICENCE:
(A) appreciation (B) deception (C) modesty (D) stinginess (E) anxiety
4. JUDICIOUS:
(A) insecure (B) unwise (C) inept (D) lacking consequence (E) without probability
5. DISSEMINATE:
(A) deceive (B) garner (C) constrain ( D) confirm ( E) conjoin
Sample GRE Quantitative (I) Time: 5 Minutes
1. If the volume of a cube with side of length 6 is equal to the volume of a rectangular solid with length 12 and width 9, then the height of the rectangular solid is:
(A) 2 ( B) 4 (C) 6 (D)8 (E) 9
2. Consider this result of an operation []:
3(4.5 [] 3) = 4.5
Which of the following operations could be substituted for [] to make the above equation true?
I (+) II (-) III (/ )
(A) None (B) I only ( C) II only (D) III only (E) II and III
3. In a list of numbers the first number is 3, the second is 4, and each subsequent number is the sum of all the preceding numbers in the list. If the 20th number in the list is x, what is the 21st number in the list?
(A) 7x (B) 16 x (C) 32x ( D) 35x (E) 161 x
4. Electricity to operate a window air conditioner costs 3 cents per hour and to operate an attic fan, 1.2 cents per hour. How many hours would the attic fan have to be in operation to operate the air conditioner for 8 hours?
(A) 2.5 (B) 3,2 (C) 12,0 (D) 20.0 (E) 25.0
5. If r = 4s/ 5 then what is the value of 2s/ 3r?
(A) 8/15 ( B) 3/4 (C) 5/6 (D) 2/2 (E) 6/5
GRE Sample Verbal (II) Time: 5 Minutes
In each of the following, select the lettered pair of words that is closest to the original pair (shown in capitals):
1. GALLEY:SHIP
(A) entry:restaurant (B) market:mall (C)picnic:park (D) kitchen:house (E) banquet: hall
2. SPLINT: MOBILITY
(A) lubricant:friction (B) foundation:stability (C) exercise :activity (D) food:weight (E) antiseptic:sterility
3. RIG: CONTEST
(A) repudiate:thesis (B) predict:race (C) gerrymander:district (D) solve:conundrum (E)incriminate:evidence
4. CREEK:RIVER:
(A) fire:log (B) pebble:rock (C) leg: desk (D) island:water (E) beach:desert
5. COURAGEOUS: BRAVADO:
(A) wary:prudence (B) horrific: panic (C) honorable:veracity (D) self-centered:conceit (E)complimentary:fulsomeness
GRE Sample Quantitative (II): 5 minutes
Choose (A) if the quantity in column A is larger, Choose (B) if the quantity in column B is larger, choose (C) if the quantities are equal, and choose (D) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given:
Column A -------------------------- Column B
1. 12/ 3.......................................(4/7) x 7
2. 100.010 - 0.009.................100.000 + 0.002
3. x/y ..........................................y/x
(where x = 25% of 12, and y = 10% of 40)
4. P ................................................Q
(for all x: x 2 - 7x - 8 = (x - P) (x - Q)
5. (-4) <> 5..................................5 <> (-4)
(for all real numbers p and r, p<> r = pr - p +r)
(Answers tomorrow!)
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